It’s not just an antiquated idea that got thrown out centuries ago, but instead it’s one that still has value in modern economic thought. Originally Posted by evilwill32 I would instead argue that sale of a product involves exchange of property rights, whereas sale of services do not. A third world country could rapidly industrialize if it granted guild status to industrial developers. Modern examples: most software and operating systems, patented GM crops.Why does this occur? Is it more common now?
You don’t want to have taken out huge loans on a shiny new factory and then not have anyone place any orders. You seem to inconsistently define the time frame in which you sell a product and a service. Shouldn’t you be telling us?
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